wellinghall: (Flatcoat)
wellinghall ([personal profile] wellinghall) wrote2008-06-30 03:47 pm
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Following an earlier poll ...

Ratio of male to female mortality, by age band

21-25 459%
26-30 220%
31-35 184%
36-40 151%
41-45 129%
46-50 130%
51-55 130%
56-60 145%
61-65 158%
66-70 162%
71-75 152%
76-80 150%
81-85 149%
ext_20852: (Default)

[identity profile] alitalf.livejournal.com 2008-06-30 04:09 pm (UTC)(link)
I have failed to understand this. It appears that more men than women die at all these age groups, which would appear to mean that many more men than women were born, OR that the women mostly die after the age of 85. However I thought the differential was approximately 5% more male then female children born.

Could you explain where I am going wrong, please?

[identity profile] wellinghall.livejournal.com 2008-06-30 04:33 pm (UTC)(link)
The ratios are of q(x)'s, where q(x) is the proportion of people age x dying in the next year. So there could be 1,000 men age 21, of whom 1% or 10 die in the next year; and 1,100 women age 21, of whom 0.8% or 8.8.

By the time you get to 70, there are 500 men and 700 women around. 5% of the men, or 25, die in the next year; 4% of the women, or 28, die in the next year. So you can get more women dying than men, but still have a lower proportion of women dying.